---------
For each co-owner against whom a penalty is determined, the penalty will
be based on the co-owner's percentage ownership of the highest balance
of the foreign financial account.---------
I think who earns may not be the same as who owns.
Assume, for example, the H (US citizen) and W (nonUS citizen) reside in
France with a community property law that says 50% of earnings for
personal services belong 1/2 to each, then if W earns everything in the
account, it is still owned 1/2 by each.
So, if W has no FBAR filing
obligation, H's penalty would be based on the 50% he owned. At least
that is how I interpret the concept.
If W has an FBAR filing requirement, then 100% of the account is the penalty base, but split 50-50 to each of them.
Of
course, in applying the offshore penalty in OVDP, the IRS has always
only applied it to the owned portion of the account for the U.S.
taxpayer.
Since 100% of europe goes by a community property type law one way or
another, this means very good news for ``H`` because his FBAR penalty
will only be based on 50% of the joint account value. There are
inconsistencies here.
Why should it be based on the highest joint account balance ?
Again
the date of the filing violation is 6/30 of the year following the
calendar year for which the account is being reported. I am not sure
where the IRS outside of OVDI gets this from !?
Hazards of Litigation present.
Example:
2012 : joint account 6/30 balance $150K but max. balance $300K
Penalty base should be $75K for ``H`` and not $150K !!
willful : ---------In no event will the total penalty amount exceed 100 % of the highest aggregate balance of all unreported foreign financial accounts during the years under examination-------------
Example :
2010 : $250.000 aggregate balances as of 6/30 and not high/max. balance
2011 : $250.000 aggregate balances as of 6/30 and not high/max. balance
2012 : $250.000 aggregate balances as of 6/30 and not high/max. balance
Before for willful penalties was $100k or 50% whatever is greater. Which would have been hypothetically $375K (3x125K)
Now worst case scenario is 100% of $250K = $250K which is a reduction of $125K from earlier guidance.
willful: ---------In most cases, the total penalty amount for all years under
examination will be limited to 50 % of the highest aggregate
balance of all unreported foreign financial accounts during the years
under examination.-------------------
I would like to emphasize by aggregate balance we are talking about the amount as of 6/30 for each tax year under examination.
To use the example from the guidance :
2010 : $50.000 aggregate balances as of 6/30 and not high/max. balance
2011 : $100.000 aggregate balances as of 6/30 and not high/max. balance
2012 : $200.000 aggregate balances as of 6/30 and not high/max. balance
NW : -------------- In no
event will the total amount of the penalties for nonwillful violations
exceed 50% of the highest aggregate balance of all unreported
foreign financial accounts for the years under examination.-----------------
This really feels like a turkish bazar when I take into consideration
the $10K max. penalty per year and account and holder vs. the NW
mitigation guidelines and this new guidance.
I still do not see the original intentions of Congress well represented here.
There
is supposed to be consideration of the desired result “of improving
compliance in the future” which can be obtained without penalties.
Further,
there is nothing in the Statues that require full application of all
technical penalties. The Federal courts have consistently held that
when Congress uses the word “may”, it means “may”, not “must” or
“shall”, so even absent the IRM FBAR policy guidelines, there is
discretion that the IRS can exercise. Additionally, it is obvious that
the IRS appreciates the discretionary nature of its authority. I quote
from a IRS Division Council memo providing guidance on the application
of civil FBAR penalties (“Guidance Memo”) “The penalty statute,
however, provides for discretion in asserting the penalty.
The
purpose for the penalty, and the reason for the flexibility Congress
provided in asserting the penalty is to encourage compliance. There is
no requirement to assert a separate FBAR penalty for every possible
technical violation encountered and doing so could lead, in some cases,
to an absurd result.”
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